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Re: 1e38 limit? [message #65329 is a reply to message #65326]

Fri, 27 February 2009 09:00

paulartcoelho
Messages: 30
Registered: March 2007

Member

On Feb 27, 5:07 pm, Spon II <christoph.b...@gmail.com> wrote:
> I'll try that again :-\
>
> Hi Paula,
>
> try
> IDL> Help, 1e40
>
> Your multiplier is too large to be represented as a float, so you have
> to use double precision.
> What happens if you replace it with 1d40? You may still be getting
> overflow, but you'll have a lot more room to play.
>
> I find you can't read the following article often enough:http://www.dfanning.com/math_tips/sky_is_falling.html
>
> All the best,
> Chris

many thanks Chris!

multiplying by 1d40 still gets me into the infinite loop, but it may
well be that i still have some 'e' to change to 'd' in other places of
the routine... and i'll go through a good read of 'sky is falling'
right now :)

p.

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[Message index]

		Re: 1e38 limit? By: paulartcoelho on Fri, 27 February 2009 10:39
		Re: 1e38 limit? By: Chris[6] on Fri, 27 February 2009 09:39
		Re: 1e38 limit? By: paulartcoelho on Fri, 27 February 2009 09:00
		Re: 1e38 limit? By: Spon on Fri, 27 February 2009 08:07
		Re: 1e38 limit? By: Spon on Fri, 27 February 2009 08:03
		Re: 1e38 limit? By: R.Bauer on Sat, 28 February 2009 02:49

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