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Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. [message #69707 is a reply to message #69698]

Sat, 30 January 2010 16:25

David Fanning
Messages: 11724
Registered: August 2001

Senior Member

wlandsman writes:

> Just to be clear, that is what the 3 lines of code are doing, so the
> answer is yes,
>
> Y = (B-A*6) > 0
>
> is equivalent to
>
> Y=B - A*6
> index=where( Y lt 0., ct)
> if ct ne 0 then Y[index]=0.

Sorry. Didn't really read the code. Tennis, you know. ;-)

Cheers,

David

--
David Fanning, Ph.D.
Fanning Software Consulting, Inc.
Coyote's Guide to IDL Programming: http://www.dfanning.com/
Sepore ma de ni thui. ("Perhaps thou speakest truth.")

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[Message index]

		Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. By: Wout De Nolf on Wed, 03 February 2010 02:12
		Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. By: munka on Tue, 02 February 2010 20:52
		Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. By: Kenneth P. Bowman on Tue, 02 February 2010 07:23
		Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. By: David Fanning on Mon, 01 February 2010 15:02
		Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. By: R.G.Stockwell on Mon, 01 February 2010 14:55
		Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. By: David Fanning on Sat, 30 January 2010 16:25
		Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. By: wlandsman on Sat, 30 January 2010 13:39
		Re: Simple question about the '>' sign. By: David Fanning on Sat, 30 January 2010 12:38

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